> < ^ Date: Fri, 24 Jun 1994 13:54:00 -0500
< ^ From: Peter Jipsen <pjipsen@iastate.edu >
> ^ Subject: order of booleans in GAP

Just an idle question: Is there a particular reason why GAP
defines true < false ? I would have expected the opposite,
probably because some languages identify false with 0.

Peter Jipsen


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